The concept of royal law includes the notion that at some point in time the rule of law became separate from the rules of the church.
Give reasons, why in your view, did this occur?
Do you think any of the fundamental reasons for such a separation are noticeable or otherwise present in our current legal systems – if so in what ways?
Required Text: Berman, H. (1983) Law and revolution: the formation of the western legal tradition. Boston: Harvard University Press. ISBN 978-0-674-51774-5 Read pages pages 404-457 in your text
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